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One of mankind’s land/home contract states mineral rights are retained. Is there a difference to that statement if someone is presently paying or property is clear of debt? Or is property (land) still owned by another entity either way? If so, please offer a path to claim the mineral rights?

A casual comment made by a woman that "no mineral rights" in your contract meant the land where the home sits does not belong to the man and/or woman signing the contract.

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