Back to questions

Property mortgage contract stated that mineral rights were not those of i. Now property is without debt. Are the mineral rights still retained per original contract or shall i, work toward removal of that language from recorded title? This is a USA property.

Someone made comment that even though a land/home property was paid in full and since original contract gave no mineral rights that the property is not yours to do with as desired.

Want to see this question answered?

Click the "thumbs-up" icon. The questions with the most votes will be answered.


Your email address will not be published.